Originally Posted by
Krank
Originally Posted by Krank:
"BTW, I would be very curious to know how the Biblical literalists who claim their knowledge and understanding of Judeo-Christian gospels is unassailable would identify hermaphroditic folks and who THEY choose to be with on a sexual/relationship level.
Any takers on that?"
Appreciate the reply, badrose, and I tend to agree (and props to puma, who has been EXCELLENT on this thread, not saying that because I tend to agree with him, but because I feel his thoughts are extremely logical and organized, as well as attempting to buffer the typical "either with us or against us" political BULLSPIT that ALWAYS garbles these sorts of discussions, i.e. he is trying to bring real life experience AND his religious beliefs into the fray).
The reason I asked the question about hermaphroditic individuals is that such an example, IMO, perfectly shows that the issue of GLBT rights is not as simple as many would like to make it out to be. If a person has BOTH sets of genitalia, then the answer to "what is natural?" becomes not so easy and certainly not definable by a religious doctrine (or at least any that I am familiar with).
So I ask, again, this time pointing a further fleshed out question towards the most conservative biblical literalists on this thread...
If a hermaphroditic individual, allegedly loved every bit as much by your deity of choice as any other human being would be, chooses to have sexual relationships with someone who is NOT hermaphroditic, then are they gay when they use their male genitalia with a male?
or are they lesbian if they use their female genitalia with a female?
or are they "gay sinners" simply because they are NEITHER completely male or female, thus dooming their partners AND themselves to "everlasting hellfire" by simply being involved with a uni-gendered partner (how does one check on that, BTW, should the government/church of your choice appoint a secret service agent for god that hides in the closets of hermaphrodites so as to guide them once they sin with each and every sexual act that is not the missionary position between individuals who are clearly ONE gender or "the OTHER"?)?
or are they given a pass because the human writers of the bible forgot to mention them, thus NOT being divinely inspired by a perfect "creator/god"?
or do you concede that biological reality on an issue such as this trumps unprovable mythology that insists that all words in a bible are directly inspired by "god"?
One might assume that I am attempting to embarrass the folks that this question is pointed toward, but I consider it a completely rational question that deals with real life individuals, folks you would NEVER know are hermaphroditic, thus it is NOT my attempt to bait or embarrass anyone. I am just curious to see if any of said folks have the guts to think about it and give a rational response.
Thanks in advance.
Peace.
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