1.) An
article in 2013 reported that former NCAA staffers noted that the NCAA targeted specific coaches and programs. Who were these coaches and programs and who authorized and instigated this targeting ?
2.) In the Memphis case and in other cases, guilt was presumed to those who did not cooperate fully with the NCAA investigation. Why was Duke and Lance Thomas allowed to not cooperate and not incur the same presumption of guilt, despite outside evidence even without their cooperation that violations occurred ?
3.) The NCAA argues that no compensation to athletes is necessary, given that they are provided with free education etc. as part of their scholarship. With news of the UNC scandal where oftentimes no tangible education was being provided, how can one not conclude that the athletes are being thoroughly exploited and the NCAA's claim of an education is a lie ?
4.) Furthermore, with regard to UNC's blatant and long-standing fraud with respect to providing a quality education, does not the NCAA's inaction and indifference to what is supposedly a core value, in effect advocate to other schools to be equally deceitful and dismissive of providing a quality education to their athletes ?
5.) Furthermore, before NCAA investigators first arrived in Chapel Hill, it is known that NCAA staffer and former UNC-alum and athlete Marcus Wilson returned to campus. What was the purpose of this visit and who sent him ? Is the NCAA through these actions complicit in covering up the scandal at UNC ?
6.) Furthermore, with respect to the UNC fraud much was made that non-athletes as well as athletes benefitted, and this somehow absolves the school of any punishment. How exactly is a non-athlete defined (for example we know athletes who had exhausted their eligibility were classified as 'non-athletes') How do we know if the 'regular students' were no in fact team managers, others associated with the athletics program etc. And why is this technicality being employed now when it has not been used extensively in the past, and how does it even make sense. For example does the mere fact that others benefitted from the fraud magically make an ineligible player eligible ?
7.) Furthermore, with respect to the UNC fraud. The NCAA rulebook, beyond saying that academic honesty and integrity are a fundamental aspect of collegiate athletics, they instruct the schools that each year they must certify that their student-athletes are eligible for competition. Given what we know now about the academic fraud at UNC, can it not be determined that UNC administrators were falsely certifying many of their athletes as eligible when in fact they weren't, given the bogus classes etc. Isn't this a direct violation of NCAA rules ?
8.) The NCAA claims itself as a non-profit. Yet they only return approximately 60% of their revenue back to the schools in the form of grants. How is this 40% overhead spent, in particular with respect to the various administrators within the NCAA, and why is it so large ?
9.) The NCAA instituted dramatic sanctions on the Penn State program for actions taken by a former member of the football staff. Under what part of the NCAA's constitution was this taken and what specific rule(s) within the NCAA's rulebook was broken ? Why did the NCAA presume to have jurisdiction over what is a criminal case with respect to Sandusky and what is the responsibility of the Board of Trustees with respect to the school at large ?
9.) The NCAA claims that they hold the rights to the likenesses of players in perpetuity, and can resell these likenesses and earn royalties on them. What specific agreement between the players and the NCAA allows this to occur and when did these agreements go into effect. (i.e. players like Oscar Robertson and Bill Russell (who played in the 1950s) presumably didn't specifically sign anything relinquishing their rights). If the NCAA claims they own these rights, on what basis can they point to and evidence they can provide ? (or is this more of a plantation mentality where anyone who ever works on the plantation is considered to have relinquished any rights they may have had forever.)
10.) Furthermore, if the NCAA insists on holding the rights to likenesses of players long after they have graduated (or their eligibility has expired), why can't that royalty money be funneled back to the players, even if it's in the form of tuition toward graduation of them and/or their family members ?
11.) Why punish UConn for bad grades by athletes when UNC's guys don't even attend classes?
12.) Why did Georgia get punished 10 years ago for bogus classes and nothing at UNC?
13.) How come Kanter can't play when Alex Len can? How come Kanter was ok to play when he was committed to Washington but when he ended up wanting to go to UK then the tune changed?
14.) Why did you feel Justified in going waaaaaaay outside of the NCAA's jurisdiction on the PSU case which was a criminal investigation and yet also feel Justified in stating that the UNC case is outside of your jurisdiction when it is an academic investigation that calls into question the eligibility of players involved in the case? Isn't that by definition EXACTLY what falls under NCAA jurisdiction?
15.) Why were the cases of Georgia and Marshall, where both athletes and non-athletes benefitted from fraudulent classes determined to be NCAA violations with each school being placed on probation, but the UNC case, where both athletes and non-athletes benefitted from fraudulent classes determined to be an academic matter where the NCAA has no jurisdiction?
16.) The NCAA by-laws requires schools who do not meet APR standards to be withheld from post season competition. Would UNC have met the APR requirements without the benefit of the fraudulent classes and grade changes?
17.) Each school is required to certify the eligibility of their athletes and it is the school's responsibility to determine the validity of the information provided to the NCAA (by-law 14.1,2). Did UNC meet their responsibility or did they provide false information that allowed athletes to remain eligible?
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Originally Posted by BigBlue92
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